Showing posts with label Institute of International Finance. Show all posts
Showing posts with label Institute of International Finance. Show all posts
June 11, 2014
Sir, John Plender refers to the Institute of International Finance and their looking at “the asset to GDP ratio” arguing “the risk that unless growth accelerates significantly in the future, economic growth will not create sufficient resources to service the developed world´s huge pool of assets, whose value will therefore have to correct at some point of time”, “Déjà vu as echoes of pre-crisis world mount” June 11.
Indeed but unfortunately there is not a chance in a million that growth will accelerate significantly in the future, if regulators keep discriminating against the fair access of “the risky” to bank credit.
In fact the real hair-raising déjà vu is seeing that Basel III still uses risk weighted capital requirements, those bound to discriminate against the “risky” risk-takers we risk adverse so much depend on.
July 16, 2013
With capital requirements based on a perceived risk already cleared for, do not banks overdose on perceptions?
Sir, Tim Adams, in a letter on July 16 that comments your editorial “In praise of bank leverage ratios” (July 11) writes that “Given the lessons of the crisis, it would be unwise to rely on a measure that does not take into account the riskiness of banking assets…. Let’s focus on strengthening the existing framework and avoid incentivising firms to shift to the riskiest assets, which could only sow the seeds of another crisis.”
I do not understand. What crisis did Mr. Adams see, and what lessons did he learned? I say this because the crisis I saw was 100 percent the result of incentivizing banks to move excessively to the “safest assets”, those which allowed banks to hold the least capital, those which allowed the banks to earn the highest expected risk-adjusted returns on their equity.
Banks already take the ex ante perceived risk into account when setting interest rates, deciding the amount of the exposure, and defining any other term, and so why should banks also consider exactly the same perceived risk in their capital. Does that not guarantee that banks will overdose on ex-ante perceived risk?
I have posed that last question to the regulators for many years, and never received an answer. Maybe the President and CEO of the Institute of International Finance, Washington, DC, US could help me and the regulators providing an answer?
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